16/2*a =8a by math convention.
But what happens if we leave out the multiplication sign
16/2a
Now maybe it's wrong, but there is a tendency in my mind to think of 2a as a
term or entity and come up with 16/2a=8/a
So maybe leaving out the multiplication sign was done on purpose to trick
our subconscious. I'm not so sure what the correct answer is when a sign is
omitted.
Does 16/2*a equal 16/2a ?
Does anyone know the rule or how to handle when the multiplication sign is
left out?
Regards,
Brian
----- Original Message -----
From: "Mario Marotti" <mmar62@hotmail.com>
To: <math4u@yahoogroups.com>
Sent: Wednesday, December 05, 2007 2:38 PM
Subject: RE: RE : Re: [Math4u] Math persons
16 / 2 [8 – 3 (4 – 2)] + 1
= 16 / 2 [8 – 3 (2)] +1
= 16 / 2 [8 – 6] +1
= 16 / 2 [ ] + 1
= 16 / 4 +1
= 4 + 1
= 5
Hello!
This is my first message in the group.
I think the ambiguity occurs when a fraction is written like 16/2 instead of
using the horizontal ___ quotient line.
Writing
16
__
2
instead of (16/2), you have no problem at all.
Best regards
Mario
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